I mean, that’s not wild on it’s face. You can explain shifting morality with respect to changing material conditions and social relationships.
I might argue that the Old Testament God was intended to offer leverage to the intelligencia (priest class) over the military/aristocracy (kings and their courtiers).
Meanwhile, the New Testament was fundamentally describing a God of Slaves, preaching equinimity and grace in the next life for the hardships of the modern day.
And then, when the slave class overthrew and supplanted the Pagan aristocracy, suddenly the Old Testament was back in fashion again.
Because God’s absolute morality somehow changes over time while still being absolute, because something or other that makes no sense.
I mean, that’s not wild on it’s face. You can explain shifting morality with respect to changing material conditions and social relationships.
I might argue that the Old Testament God was intended to offer leverage to the intelligencia (priest class) over the military/aristocracy (kings and their courtiers).
Meanwhile, the New Testament was fundamentally describing a God of Slaves, preaching equinimity and grace in the next life for the hardships of the modern day.
And then, when the slave class overthrew and supplanted the Pagan aristocracy, suddenly the Old Testament was back in fashion again.
It makes sense historically